# Graduate level paper Jkssb 2024.

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Graduate level paper Jkssb 2024 conducted in May 2024. This paper aims to provide a comprehensive overview of the JKSSB 2024 examination, exploring its significance, the underlying principles guiding the selection process, and the challenges and opportunities it presents. By examining the structure, content, and objectives of the examination, as well as the broader context of administrative changes in Jammu and Kashmir, this study seeks to offer insights into the critical role of the JKSSB previous year paper in shaping the future of public service in the region.

Q1. In every 20 minutes the time of a watch increases by 5 minutes. After setting the correct time at 5 am. What time will it show after 12 house?

A) 5 PM

B) 6:40 PM

C) 8 PM

5.6 km/hr

5.6 km/hr

Q2. In a row of 26 girls, when Sakshi shifted four places towards the left, she become 10th from the left end. What was her earlier position from the right end of the row?

A) 10th

B) 11th

C) 13th

D) 12th

C) 13th

Q3. Complete the series 34, 45, 57, 7, 54, 43.

A) 88

B) 90

C) 75

D) 63

C) 75

Q4.Rahul put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 6 P.M. hour hand points to North. In which direction the minute hand will point at 9.15 P.M.?

A) South-East

B) South

C) East

D) West

D) West

Q5. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

1. Infant

2. Old

5. Child

A) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

B) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5

C) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4

D) 1, 5, 4, 3, 2

D) 1, 5, 4, 3, 2

Q6. Find the missing number in the following series:

10. 100. 200. 310 ?

A) 430

B) 420

C) 410

D) 440

A) 430

Q7. Find the missing letters in the following sequence in the correct order

abca_ beaab_ca_bbc_

(a) ccaa

(b) abac

(c) abba

(d) bbaa

(b) abac

Q8. What is the next letter in the series CNL, BLI, AJF, ZHC

A) XDY

B) YFZ

C) YFA

D) XFY

B) YFZ

Q9. A car completes a certain journey in 8 hours, It covers half the distance at 40 km/hr and the rest at 60 km/hr. The total distance of the journey is.

A) 350 km

B) 384 km

C) 400 km

D) 420 km

B) 384 km

Q10. Two men start together to walk to a certain destination, one a 3 km/hr. and another

3.75 km/hr. The latter arrives half an hour before the former. The distance is

A) 6 km

B) 7.5 km

C) 8 km

D) 9.5 km

B) 7.5 km

Q11. A statement is given by two conclusions. Give answer:

Statement: The old order changed yielding place to new.

Conclusion:

1. Change is the law of nature.

2. Discard old ideas because they are old.

A) Only conclusion 1 follows.

B) Only conclusion 2 follows.

C) Either 1 or 2 follows.

D) Neither 1 nor 2 follows

1. Change is the law of nature.

Q12.Find the odd one out from the given set of numbers.

14, 28, 35,46,56,84

A) 56,

B) 84

C) 35

D) 46

D) 46

Q13. Find an odd one out from the given jumbled words.

LNUAIMMIU, ELEST, OPERPC, NMKOVE, INCKLE

A) NMKOYE

B) OPERPC

C) INCKLE

D) ELEST

A) NMKOYE

Q14. Which group of letters is different from others?

A) CBAED

B) HUCK

C) SROPT

D) TVWYZ

D) TVWYZ

Q15. From the given alternatives, select the word which CANNOT be formed using the letters of the given word – PRONUNCIATION

A) PIANOR

B) NUPART

C) CREATO

D) CITARO

C) CREATO

Q16. What is 7 + 7+ 7×7 – 7=

A) 0

B) 50

C) 42

D) 57

B) 50

Q18.In the following equation, by using which mathematical operator will the expression

become correct?

(18 ? 6) ? 9 ? 27

A) + and =

B) x and =

c) + and =

D) +, – and =

B) x and =

Q22. Find the odd number from the given alternatives.

A) 5720

B) 6710

C) 2640

D) 4270

D) 4270

Q23. Five letter groups are given, out of which four have a certain type. And one is

incompatible. Select that inconsistent letter group.

AUKZ, UPuB, OOMY, EXeN, AaQS

A) AaQS

B) OoMY

C) AUkZ

D) UPuB

C) AUkZ

Q24. Three of the following four letter clusters are alike in some manner and one is different.Identify the one which is different.

B) VYBE

C) PRVX

D) GJMP

C) PRVX

Q25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

H, F, U, P, N

A) N

B) U

C) P

D) H

B) U

Q26.According to the Census of India 2011 which of the following Union Territory had the highest sex ratio?

A) Chandigarh

B) Puducherry

D) Daman and Diu

B) Puducherry

Q27. The Harappa Civilization was discovered in 1920-21 by the excavations by

A) Dayaram Sahni

B) Mortimer Wheeler

C) Sir Alexander Cunningham

D) Vishwajeet Parul

A) Dayaram Sahni

Q28. The first daily newspaper of the state Jammu and Kashmir is ?

A) Kashmir Times

B) Ranbir

C) Greater Kashmir

D) Kashmir Observer

B) Ranbir

Q29. Kishanganga is an important tributary of which of the following rivers?

A) Chenab

B) Chandra

C) Jhelum

D) Bhaga

C) Jhelum

Q30. Which clause / section of the J&K Reorganization Act 2019 deals with Appropriation of

Bills?

A) 36

B) 39

C) 41

D) 43

D) 43

Q31. What does ECOSOC stand for?

A) Environmental Council of Social Cooperation

B) Economic and Social Council

C) Educational Coalition for Social Order

D) Ethical Committee on Social Cooperation

B) Economic and Social Council

Q32. Who were the key members of the Indian team that won the gold medal in the Women’s 25m pistol shooting team event at the Asian Games 2023?

A) Manu Bhaker, Rhythm Sangwan, Esha Singh

B) Ashi Chouksey, Manini Koushik and Rahi Sarnobat

C) Esha Singh, Divya TS, Palak Gulia

D) Mehuli Ghosh, TS Palak and Esha Singh

A) Manu Bhaker, Rhythm Sangwan, Esha Singh

Q33. Consider the following pairs of medals won by athletes at Asian Games 2023.

1. Esha Singh – Women’s 25m pistol

2. Kiran Baliyan – Women’s shot put

3. Annu Rani – Women’s javelin throw

4. Karthik Kumar – Men’s 25m rapid pistol

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

A) 1 and 3 only

B) 1, 2 and 3 only

C) 3 and 4 only

D) 1. 3 and 4 only

B) 1, 2 and 3 only

Q34. Which of the following countries has the largest gold mine reserve in the world?

A) Russia

B) India

C) Indonesia

D) Australia

D) Australia

Q35. Which mountain peak has earned the nickname “Killer Mountain”?

A) Nanga Parbat

B) Mount Kanchenjunga

C) Mount Everest

D) K2

A) Nanga Parbat

Q36. Which of the following statements regarding Zaid crops is/are correct?

1. Zaid crops are summer-season crops, grown from March to July.

2.. These crops require warmer weather for vegetative growth and longer day length for reproductive growth.

3. Maize is a Zaid crop that requires a temperature between 21°C to 27°C and grows well in old alluvial soil.

A) 1 and 3 only

B) 1,2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 2 only

D) 1,3 and 2 only

C) 1 and 2 only

Q37.  Isohyets are imaginary lines on a weather map that connect areas of equal______ over some time period.

A) rainfall

B) wind speed

C) humidity

D) wind speed

A) rainfall

Q38. NH-44 is the longest national highway in India with a length of

_____ Kilometres running from _____ in the north to _______ in the south.

A) 3745, Srinagar, Kanyakumari

B) 4153, Delhi, Chennai

C) 3565, Jammu, Trivandrum

D) 4821, Mumbai, Kolkata

A) 3745, Srinagar, Kanyakumari

Q39. Consider the following pairs corresponding to the international airports and their location in different states of India.

Location of the Airport                                        International Airport

International Airport

b) Devi Ahilya Bai Holkar Airport                   (2) Nagpur, Maharashtra

c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel                           (3) Ahmedabad, Gujarat

International Airport

d) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar                         (4) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh

International Airport

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4

B) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3

C) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2

D) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3

C) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2

Q40.Which of the following is NOT a common pull factor?

A) Better Employment opportunities.

B) Higher income.

C) Higher living standards.

D) Political oppression

D) Political oppression

Q41. Arrange the following rivers in the decreasing order of their lengths

A) The Godavari River > The Ganges River > The Narmada River > The Tapti River

B) The Godavari River > The Narmada River > The Tapti River > The Ganges River

C) The Ganges River > The Godavari River > The Narmada River > The Tapti River

D) The Narmada River > The Godavari River > The Ganges River > The Tapti River

C) The Ganges River > The Godavari River > The Narmada River > The Tapti River

Q42. Which is the largest freshwater lake in Bihar?

A) Kanwar Taal Lake

B) Dipor Bil Lake

C) Senchal Lake

D) Kanjia Lake

A) Kanwar Taal Lake

Q43. Which of the following most closely defines stagflation in an economy?

A) High economic growth with high inflation

B) No growth in economy with low inflation

C) Sluggish economic growth with high inflation

D) Economic recession with low inflation

C) Sluggish economic growth with high inflation

Q44.In which Indian State is the Makaravilakku festival celebrated?

B) Kerala

C) Karnataka

B) Kerala

Q45. Popir is the folk dance of which Indian State?

A) Kerala

B) Karnataka

Q46. Which of the following statements about the Indian Independence Act of 1947 is false?

A) The Indian Independence Act was passed by the British Parliament in July 1947.

.B) This Act leads to the establishment of the Constituent Assembly of India

C) The Act abolished the title of the ‘Emperor of India’ from the British Crown.

D) It provided for the partition of British India into two separate independent

dominions: India and Pakistan.

.B) This Act leads to the establishment of the Constituent Assembly of India

Q47. Which constitutional amendment added the Fundamental Duties to the Indian

Constitution?

A) 41 ist Amendment Act, 1976

B) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976

C) 44th Amendment Act, 1978

D) 46th Amendment Act, 1982

B) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976

Q48. Which Article of the Indian constitution describes the effect of a national emergency on

fundamental rights?

A) Articles 358 and 359

B) Articles 352 and 359

C) Articles 358 and 352

D) Articles 358 and 360

A) Articles 358 and 359

Q49. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Chandrayaan – 3 mission?

A) To achieve a safe and soft landing of the lander on the Moon’s surface.

B) To demonstrate the rover’s loitering capabilities on the Moon.

C) To conduct in-situ scientific observations and experiments to understand the composition of the Moon’s surface.

D) To develop and demonstrate new interplanetary technologies required for moon missions.

D) To develop and demonstrate new interplanetary technologies required for moon missions.

Q50. Which of the following reasons results in winter smog?

A) Due to condensation of water vapors present in the air.

B) Increased wind speed causes more dispersing of pollutants in the atmosphere

C) Temperature inversion causes pollutants to be trapped at ground level.

D) Higher atmospheric pressure pushes pollutants closer to the ground.

C) Temperature inversion causes pollutants to be trapped at ground level.

Q51.Which of the following statements regarding Dugongs – marine mammals is/are correct?

1. The warm coastal waters of the Indian and Pacific Oceans are home to dugongs.

2. Dugongs typically measure between 2.2 to 3.4 meters (7 to 11 feet) in length and

weigh around 230 to 420 kg (500 to 925 pounds).

3. Males possess tusk-like incisors, while both male and female adults frequently

exhibit sets of parallel scars on their backs, often resulting from mating attempts or fighting.

A) 1 and 3 only

B) 1, 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 2 only

D)  2 and 3 only

B) 1, 2 and 3 only

Q52. Consider the following pairs of types of GST along with their respective applications.

1. SGST – is applicable on intrastate (within the same state) transactions

2. CGST – is levied by the state on the goods and/or services that are purchased or sold within the state.

3. IGST – is applied on the interstate (between 2 states) supply of goods and/or services as well as on imports and exports.

4. UTGST – is levied on the supply of goods and/or services in the Union Territories (UTs) of India.

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

A) 1 and 3 only

B) 1,2 and 3 only

C) 3 and 4 only

D) 1,3 and 4 only

D) 1,3 and 4 only

Q53.Who among the following is known as the Samudra Gupta of Kashmir” due to his significant rule during the Karkota dynasty between 724-761 A.D.?

B) Avantivarman

C) Durlabhvardhana

D) Jayapida

Q54.In which district is Martand Sun Temple located?

A) Anantnag

B) Kulgam

C) Ramban

D) Kishtwar

A) Anantnag

Q55. Which of the following is not a variety of walnuts?

A) Raktsey Karpo

B) Kagzi

C) Sulaiman

D) Burzil

A) Raktsey Karpo

Q56. What is shearing in the case of sheep?

A) Process of using insecticide on the fleece of sheep.

B) Process of inserting ear tags.

C) Process of spraying color on the body of sheep.

D) Process of removing wool from the body of sheep.

D) Process of removing wool from the body of sheep.

Q57. Yusmarg is a hill station in Jammu and Kashmir is known as

B) Valley of Milk

C) Jewel in the Crown of Kashmir

D) Valley of Flowers

Q58. Where does the Ujh River originate from?

A) Seojdhar range

B) Bara Bhangal near Rohtang pass

C) Kailash Kund glacier

D) Verinag spring

A) Seojdhar range

Q59. Which of the following is correct about Shahtoosh Shawls?

A) Its main source is Kel goat.

B) Its main source is Changpa goat.

C) Ain-i-Akbari records that Akbar was an avid collector of Shahtoosh Shawls.

D) Production, sale, and acquisition of shahtoosh have been illegal since 1979.

D) Production, sale, and acquisition of shahtoosh have been illegal since 1979.

Q60. Peer Kho Temple is a

A) Muslim Shrine

B) Sufi shrine

C) Shiva temple

D) Krishna temple

C) Shiva temple

Q61. According to the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act 2019, how many members of councils of state are from Jammu and Kashmir?

A) 4

B) 6

C) 36

D) 117

A) 4

Q62. Choose the correct option.

His radio _______ since 8 a.m. yesterday. The neighbours ______ disturbed.

A) was playing, gets

B) had been playing, were getting

C) is playing, have got

D)has been playing, got

B) had been playing, were getting

Q63. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. Arena said, “What a pretty and handsome girl she is!

A) Arena exclaimed with joy that she was a pretty and handsome girl.

B  Arena was overwhelmed with joy that I am pretty and handsome girl.

C) Arena exclaimed with joy as she is pretty and handsome girl.

D) Arena exclaimed with joy that I was such a pretty and handsome girl.

A) Arena exclaimed with joy that she was a pretty and handsome girl.

Q64.Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.

“What are you going to call the puppy, Rima?” the mother asked.

A) The mother wondered what Rima is going to call the puppy.

B) The mother asked Rima about what she was going to call her puppy.

C) The mother asked Rima what she was going to call the puppy.

D) Mother asked the Rima what is she going to call the puppy

C) The mother asked Rima what she was going to call the puppy.

Q65. Fill in the blank using a suitable modal:

It is eleven o’clock in the morning. He ____ be working in the office now.

A) ought to

B) would

C) should

D) must

D) must

Q66. Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options,

The young man is in search of ____ employment because he is in ____ great financial crisis.

A) the, a

B) No article, a

C) The, the

D) an, a

B) No article, a

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions No’s 67 to 69:

In an era marked by environmental concerns and the urgent need for action against climate change, sustainable energy has emerged as a beacon of hope. Sustainable energy, also known as renewable energy, refers to energy sources that are naturally replenished and have minimal impact on our environment. The various energy sources are solar, wind, hydroelectric, geothermal, and biomass. The adoption of sustainable energy holds immense promise in addressing some of the most pressing challenges facing humanity today. One of its primary goals is to reduce dependence on finite fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and natural gas, which contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution. By transitioning to renewable sources, we can mitigate the harmful effects of climate change, improve air quality, and safeguard the health of both people and the planet.

Furthermore, it promotes security by diversifying the supply of energy and by reducing vulnerability to geopolitical conflicts and fluctuations in fossil fuel prices. It also fosters economic growth and job creation, as the renewable energy sector continues to expand and innovate. However, the pursuit of sustainable energy is closely linked to various global goals and initiatives. The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs),emphasize the importance of ensuring access to reliable, sústainable, and modern energy for all. Additionally, the Paris Agreement aims to limit the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial level. Governments, businesses, and individuals must work together to accelerate the transition to sustainable energy. This involves investing in research and development, implementing supportive policies and regulations, enhancing energy efficiency,and promoting public awareness and education.

Q67. Which of the following is NOT considered a renewable energy source?

A) Solar energy

B) Coal

C) Wind energy

D) Hydroelectric energy

B) Coal

Q68. What is the primary goal of adopting sustainable energy?

a) To increase dependence on finite fossil fuels.

B) To reduce greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution.

C) To accelerate geopolitical conflicts.

D) To promote economic stagnation.

B) To reduce greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution.

Q69. How is sustainable energy linked to global initiatives?

A) It is unrelated to any global goals.

B) It is only linked to regional agreements.

C) It has no impact on global efforts to combat climate change.

D) Through the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and the Paris Agreement.

D) Through the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and the Paris Agreement.

Q70. Fill in the blanks with appropriate homophones/homonyms.

He drinks _____ daily against the advice of doctors.

A) ale

B) ail

C) aell

D) aeal

A) ale

Q71. Fill in the blanks with appropriate homophones/homonyms.

Divine force is _____ in the universe.

A) immanent

B) eminent

C) imminent

D) iminent

A) immanent

Q72. Pick out the subordinate clause in the following sentence.

Though she is rich, she is unhappy.

A) She is unhappy

B) Though she is unhappy

C) She is rich answer it

D) Though she is rich

D) Though she is rich

Q73.Select the Synonyms of the word:

TACITURN

A) Laconic

B) Prolix

C) Gregarious

D) Loquacious

A) Laconic

Q74. Select the antonym of the word:

CARICATURE

A) Burlesque

B) Panegyric

C) Travesty

D) Parody

B) Panegyric

Q75. Choose the most appropriate pair of words from the options given below to complete the following sentence.

Although the goalkeeper was responsible for the______ in the important football match, nobody______him.

A) defeat / faulted

B) loss / faulted

C) defeat / blamed

D) loss / accused

C) defeat / blamed

Q76. Given below are four scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence

which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

P. arises from the dispersion of heat

Q. due to the accumulation of unhealthy smoke in inadequately ventilated houses

R. ignited in chulhas

S. The wastefulness of domestic fires in Indian villages

A) SQRP

B) QSRP

C) SRPQ

D) QRPS

C) SRPQ

Q77. Pick out the correct meaning of the given idiom/Phrase:

A stalking horse

A) something/someone used to mask someone’s real intentions

B) something/someone used to unveil someone’s real candidacy

C) something/someone used as a political strategy to flaunt hidden agenda

D) something/someone that signifies honesty and clarity in intentions

(A) something/someone used to mask someone’s real intentions

Q78. Which of the following options does NOT express the correct meaning of the given idiom/Phrase:

Wet blanket

A) Individual’s presence or actions figuratively throw cold water on the mood or atmosphere.

B) Lack of participation in or appreciation for the positive aspects of a situation.

C) Tends to extinguish excitement or optimism in a group or situation.

D) Enthusiastic attitude and vibrant presence lifted everyone’s spirits.

D) Enthusiastic attitude and vibrant presence lifted everyone’s spirits.

Q79. Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions.

The child playing in the backyard was startled when a squirrel darted ______ the swing set.

A) beneath

B) below

C) under

D)through

C) under

Q80. Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions.

He climbed______ the ladder to get onto the roof.

A) on

B) up

C) over

D) upon

B) up

Q81. In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence from the given options and mark your answer.

The cat (a)/ knocked over (b)/the vase (c)/before she arrived home (d).

A) The cat

B) knocked over

C) the vase

D) before she arrived home

B) knocked over

Q82. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

A) Despite of his busy schedule, John managed to finish his project on time.

B) Despite his busy schedule, John managed to finish his project on time.

C) Despite John’s busy schedule, managed to finish his project on time.

D) Despite John’s busy schedule, John managed finishing his project on time.

B) Despite his busy schedule, John managed to finish his project on time

Q83. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

A) The conference was attended by scientists from various different countries.

B) The conference have been attended by scientists from various countries.

C) The conference have been attended by scientists from various different countries.

D) The conference was attended by scientists from different countries.

D) The conference was attended by scientists from different countries.

Q84.Out of the four options, choose the option bearing the correct spelling.

A) Luxuriant

B) Luxoriant

C) Luxorient

D) Luxehriant

A) Luxuriant

Q85. Out of the four options, choose the option bearing the correct spelling.

A) Promiscious

B) Promisciouis

C) Promiscuous

D) Promiscuouis

C) Promiscuous

Q86. A PCle slot is used for what purpose on a computer

A) To connect to hard-disk

C) To connect to a graphics card

D) To connect one computer to another computer

C) To connect to a graphics card

Q87. Which of the following replicate itself to slow down the computer system?

A) Virus

B) Worm

C) Trojan Horse

B) Worm

Q88. Which is the ASCII code for the letter ‘A’

A) 00000001

B) 00010001

C) 00100001

D) 01000001

D) 01000001

Q89. Which of the following 8-bit binary numbers represents -1 (minus one) in 2’s complement notation?

A) 10000001

B) 10000000

C) 11111111

D) 11111110

C) 11111111

Q90. Red Hat Enterprise Linux is a

A) Free and open source Linux distribution

B) Commercial and open-source Linux distribution

C) Commercial and closed-source Linux distribution

D) Free but closed-source Linux distribution

B) Commercial and open-source Linux distribution

Q91. Which of the following is NOT a scripting language?

A) Python

B) Perl

C) Ruby

D) Java

D) Java

Q92. Which of the following features allows a PTZ camera to automatically track the moving object within its field of view?

A) Pan, Tilt, and Zoom functionality

B) Infrared night vision

C) Motion-based auto tracking

D) Preset positions.

C) Motion-based auto tracking

Q93. You are given an MS Word document in portrait orientation with a default size of A4, which of the following options is NOT possible in MS Word:

A) Print selected part of one page

B) Print only selected pages

C) Print multiple pages on ñ

A) Print selected part of one page

Q94. What is the function of DCOUNT in MS EXCEL?

A) DCOUNT counts all values in a given list

B) DCOUNT counts the number of cells that contain numbers in a given list unconditionally

C) DCOUNT counts cells that meet a single condition in a range

D) DCOUNT counts the cells that contain numbers in a column of records in a list that match specified conditions

D) DCOUNT counts the cells that contain numbers in a column of records in a list that match specified conditions

Q95. Which of the following is false?

A) Firewall can be implemented as hardware, software, or both.

B)

B) Firewall actively seeks out, quarantines, and deletes malware within the system.

C) Antivirus uses virus definitions and behavioral patterns to detect malicious activities.

D) Antivirus Scans and neutralizes harmful software present within the system.

B) Firewall actively seeks out, quarantines, and deletes malware within the system.

Q96. Where is AADHAAR data stored?

A) Central Identities Data Repository maintained by UIDAI.

B) Decentralized Data Repositories maintained by state government.

C) Centralized Data Repository maintained by the Union government.

D) Central Data Card Repository maintained by UIDAI.

A) Central Identities Data Repository maintained by UIDAI

Q97. Which of the following is NOT a component of Information Technology?

A) Networking tools

B) Operating systems

C) Block chain

D) Xerox machines

D) Xerox machines

Q98. 7 years ago, Meera’s age was equal to the Heena’s present age. The sum of Meera’s age 10 years from now and Heena’s age 5 years ago is 94 years. What was Reena’s age 12 years ago if Reena is 6 years younger to Heena?

A) 23

B) 14

C) 25

D) 24

A) 23

Q99. The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the age of the youngest child?

A) 8

B)10

C) 4

D) None of the above

C) 4

Q100. • In a factory, the average salary of all employees is Rs. 5,600 and the average salary of 24 supervisors is 7200. If the average salary of labours is Rs. 4,800, then the number of total employees in the factory will be?

A) 75

B) 72

C) 82

D) 78

B) 72

Q101. The average of six numbers is 8. When three new numbers are included in such a way that the first number is twice the second and second number is thrice the third, now the average of nine numbers becomes 12. What will be the difference of first and third among the new numbers?

A) 30

B) 10

C) 35

D) 15

A) 30

Q102. . A person spent 20% of his monthly income on food and 65% of the remaining on rent. If amount spent on rent is Rs. 1,047.80. then find the amount spent on food.

A) Rs. 403

B) Rs. 960

C) Rs. 705.5

D) Rs. 525

A) Rs. 403

Q103.  A, B and C together earn Rs. 2,700 in 18 days. A and C together earn Rs. 940 in 10 days. B and C together earn Rs. 1,520 in 20 days. Find the daily earning of C.

A) Rs. 20

B) Rs. 40

C) Rs. 10

D) None of the above

A) Rs. 20

Q104. The ratio of number of balls in bag A and bag B is 6:8 respectively. If six balls are transferred from bag B to bag A, then number of balls are equal in each bag. Find the number of balls in bag B initially?

A) 30

B) 36

C) 42

D) 48

D) 48

Q105. The ratio of P’s to Q’s salary is 5: 7. If Q’s salary is increased by 35%, his total salary becomes Rs. 52,920. What is the salary of P?

A) Rs. 27,350

B) Rs. 28,000

C) Rs. 23,220

D) Rs. 18,887

B) Rs. 28,000

Q106. A shopkeeper bought oranges at 7 for a rupee and sold them at a gain of 40%. How many oranges for a rupee did he sell?

A) 5

B) 4

C) 3

D) 6

A) 5

Q107. A person buys books at Rs. 300 for 5 and sells them at Rs.740. How many books must he sell in order to earn profit of Rs. 3.520?

A) 40

B) 12

C) 16

D) 18

A) 40

Q108. When a shopkeeper sells an item A for Rs.52,800, he incurred a loss of 45%. If he sells another item B of same cost price in order to recover the loss incurred by selling A, what would be the selling price of B?

A) Rs. 1,39,200

B) Rs. 1,45,200

C) Rs. 1,37,900

D) Rs. 1,42,700

A) Rs. 1,39,200

Q109. Sachin can complete a job in 15 days. Ankit alone can complete the same job in 10 days. Sachin works for 9 days and then the remaining job is completed by Ankit. How many days will it take Ankit to complete the remaining job alone?

A) 5

B) 8

C) 6

D) 4

D) 4

Q110. Pand Q can do a piece of work in 32 and 40 days respectively. They began to work together but P leaves after sometimes and Q completed remaining work in 16 days. After how many days did P leaves (in days)?

A) 3⅖

B) 3⅓

C) 3⅔

D) 8⅓

C) 3⅔

Q111. A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days, B and C together can do it in 20 days. A starts the work and works on it for 5 days, then B takes it up and works for 15 days. Finally, C finishes the work in 18 days. In how many days can C do the work when doing it separately (in days)?

A) 40

B) 24

C) 60

D) 120

B) 24

Q112. • The difference between the simple interest received from two different banks on Rs. 500 for 2 years is Rs. 2.50. The difference between their rates is?

A) 0.21%

B) 0.23%

C) 0.25%

D) 0.27%

C) 0.25%

Q113. A sum of money triples itself in 12 years. Find the rate percent per annum.

A) 14% p.a.

B) 16.50% p.a.

C) 16.66% p.a.

D) 18.25% p.a.

C) 16.66% p.a

Q114.If a sum when placed at compound interest grows to Rs.6,400 in 2 years and to Rs. 8,000 in 3 years, find the rate percent p.a.

A) 22%

B) 35%

C) 32%

D) 25%

D) 25%

Q115. What is the smallest natural number that should be added to 1030 so that the square root of the sum is a natural number?

A) 69

B) 39

C) 6

D) 59

D) 59

Q116. Two times a number, added to the square of that number, gives 3. What could be the possible answer for this number?

A) (-1) от (-3)

B) (-1) or 3

C) 1 or 3

D) 1 or (-3)

D) 1 or (-3)

Q117. Which of the following fractions lies between 3/7 and 8/9 ?

A) ⅖

B) ¼

C) 5/13

D) 3/10

B) ¼

⅚ of a book, while Tina has read only ⅗ of the book she is reading. Both *

have another 150 pages of their respective books remaining to be read. What fraction of the number of pages read by Alex has been read by Tina?

A) ⅖

B) ¼

C) 5/12

D) 3/10

D) 3/10

Q119. Sheetal rides a bike at an average speed of 40 kmph and reaches her destination in 5 hours. Hemlata covers the same distance in 4 hrs. If Sheetal increases her average speed by 10 kmph and Hemlata increases her average speed by 10 kmph, what would be the difference in their time taken to reach destination?

A) 55 min

B) 48 min

C) 50 min

D) 40 min

D) 40 min

Q120. A man goes to Mumbai from Pune at a speed of 4 km/hr and returns to Pune at speed of 6km/hr. What is his average speed of the entire journey?

A) 4.8 km/hr

B) 5 km/hr

C) 4.2 km/hr

D) 5.6 km/hr

A) 4.8 km/hr